How would you redesign the circuit pictured using the same op-amps which have a gain-bandwidth product of 5x10^6, use Rin=20kohm and a gain of -20 so that the bandwidth is 10^6?
This is for an exam but myself and a few other students don't get how you would redesign this without affecting either the gain or bandwidth negatively.
Thanks in advance
Edit: Nm, found a video which Dave explains it. If anyone has a similar question the video can be found at:
Update 2: We figured it out to work with the original op amp with Rf=80k giving gain of 4. Then feed that into a non-inverting op amp with the same resistor values. As Non-inverting gain=1+r2/r1 we get a gain of 5. 5X4 is 20 and as the second stage has gain of 5 we get exactly 1Mhz for the bandwith.
Dave have a video about this.
How would you redesign the circuit pictured using the same op-amps which have a gain-bandwidth product of 5x10^6, use Rin=20kohm and a gain of -20 so that the bandwidth is 10^6?
I do not fully understand the task.
When GBW=5x10^5 it is quite clear that the bandwidth for a gain of -20 is lower by a factor of app. 20 : That is 250kHz.
How would you redesign the circuit pictured using the same op-amps which have a gain-bandwidth product of 5x10^6, use Rin=20kohm and a gain of -20 so that the bandwidth is 10^6?
I do not fully understand the task.
When GBW=5x10^5 it is quite clear that the bandwidth for a gain of -20 is lower by a factor of app. 20 : That is 250kHz.
but what if you wanted a gain of 5 followed by a gain of five again?