I previously gave the equation: for a square wave with voltages Vh and Vl for proportions of the time Ph and Pl, the mean value Vm = Vh*Ph + Vl*Pl. I'll leave it to you to calculate Vm for the 20%, 50% and 80% duty cycles
It is also worth doing a "sanity check" with 100% and 0% duty cycle.
For the trace you show, Vh=3, Vl=-1, Ph=0.25 and Pl=0.75. In other words the yellow and white areas bounded by the green trace and the 0V. The orange area isn't an area to be included, since it isn't bounded by a y value.
yes, but I didn't understand those acronyms Ph, Pi etc, now I understand

Ok I'm calculating the Vm of the AC 20% (I start with this because I have doubts that the calculation is right)

Vm: (positive yellow area) + (negative yellow area) / T period
(3,2v x 0,0002s) + (-0,8v x 0,0008s) / 0,001s
(0,00064) + (-0,00064) / 0,001s = 0
So even with duty cyrcle 20% we have a Vm = zero volts as with duty cyrcle 50%? and the same thing will also be with 80% ...
Or am I wrong?
slowly I will understand too...
