A couple of questions regarding how you have phrased your points.
I think we are both in agreement that the existing and new proposed laws have gone too far.
However I would like to understand, how you think the exceptions you have listed below are reasonable.
The reason I ask this is not to create an argument or to attack you (sorry if my questions below are quite blunt and appear like I'm attacking your post, its not my intention, but I want to get the point across.).
I'm asking so I can understand why you think in this manner (I have a couple of people who I work with who hold similar views and I find it very odd, so I'm taking the opportunity to ask).
Australia already has half-baked laws which "compel" serious criminals, facing serious charges to reveal their passwords.
How is someone a serious criminal when they have mealy been accused of something?
It concerns me that you have presented that these laws only apply to criminals.
When in actuality the laws apply to everyone who is merely accused of a crime but they have yet to be found/plead guilty or acquitted.
Those laws have largely failed, mainly because the penalties for non-compliance are far less than the penalties they would face if convicted of those other charges. So they just cop the lesser penalty.
There again appears to be bias in your statement.
The accused involved are not necessarily criminals at this point in time, they have merely been accused of something.
If someone is charged with breaking a law and then found guilty/or plead guilty they are only guilty of that offense (eg. not providing passwords). Nothing else. I do not know if this is a criminal offense or not, so again the use of "criminals", is possibly misleading (or accurate as the case maybe).
Assuming the law enforcement body has an appropriate court order to recover data, there is nothing stopping the law enforcement body to continue to attempt to recover data as well.
The courts can and do grant the right (to search - Cybercrime Act 2001 No. 161, Items 12 and 28 and The Crimes Act), if sufficient cause can be provided. They are the appropriate body to have such a power, not the police or any other law enforcement body, the type of case has nothing to do with this and its very concerning to think that you consider the severity of accusation to change the protections/rights of the accused.
I understand that your points above, are not exactly the opposite of mine. But I am interested in why you keep using the terminology of "criminal", when you are referring to someone accused of a crime, but not found guilty?
I have no issue with law enforcement and similar agencies doing this (for serious matters).
That you are presenting the idea that the seriousness of the accusation has a bearing on an individuals rights/protections is very concerning.
If someone is being accused of a crime it is not the same as being found guilty of a crime. These are two very different things and needs to be treated as such. There is no justification of a reduction in a persons rights/protections on the basis of an accusation.
Why is it that you think the person accused of a crime not entitled to the same protections as everyone else?
For trivial matters, further consultation is needed, perhaps only under a court order might that kind of thing be allowed.
And again, no matter the situation an accusation of a crime is not the same as being found guilty of a crime.
A court is the only body that should be able to make this determination. It allows all parties involved to put forward their case, defense to be provided and a reasonable body (the court) to make a determination in all cases.
At the end of the day, don't deal in drugs, don't murder people, don't threaten to blow up buildings and don't exploit children for sexual gratification, if you do, then you deserve everything that's thrown at you.
This is the problem, right here, with the pretense that someone accused of a crime should be treated in a manner different to others.
The issue is not about people who have been found guilty of dealing in drugs, murdering people, threatening to blow up buildings and exploiting children for sexual gratification. We are talking about people who are innocent of all of the charges at the time of the search event and you appear to be ok with having their rights/protections taken away before they are convicted of anything or a reasonable case can be put before a court to require the disclosure of information?
I'm sorry that it comes across that I have cherry picked items from your post and somewhat questioned them out of context of the greater post you provided, but it all goes to my overall question.
Why do you think "potential criminals" should be treated differently before they are found guilty?
Thanks in advance, should you choose to respond.