You are calling people out for not making an intuitive leap you yourself did not even describe.
λ = c/f ⇔ λ·f=c
is the easy part, and a lot of people will get that far. The trick is understanding that the next step is
λ = x·1 [m]
and
f = x·1,000,000 [Hz]
and substituting them to the original equation:
x·1 [m] · x·1,000,000 [Hz] = 299,792,458 [m/s]
which simplifies to
x2 = 299,792,458 [m/s] / (1 [m] · 1000000 [Hz])
and to
x2 = 299.792458
yielding the solution,
±x = √299.792458 ≅ 17.314516
Substituting back to the original variables, only positive values make physical sense, so
λ ≅ 17.315 [m]
f ≅ 17.315 [MHz]
Unless you show the entire sequence of operations needed to get to the result, you're skipping things, and not presenting the problem and solution realistically; you are skipping major steps that you might have found intuitive. Mathematicians do this extremely often; even in peer-reviewed articles, the interesting bit, how to find a numerical answer, is very often completely ignored and skipped. That may work for mathematicians, but it does not work for us who just use math as a tool.
Do not be a mathematician.
So, in a way, it is a similar trick question as asking how much is eπ-π. When you calculate that, you'll recalculate it again, because you'll think you calculated it wrong. You didn't, it is just a numerical coincidence.