German speakers, please, translate this sentence...

[ElektroQuark]

"Der Verkauf erfolgt nach §25a UStG"

Google Translate say funny things.

Thanks in advance.

[Shock]

"The sale is successful at 25" ?

UStG Umsatzsteuergesetz "sales tax"
Umsätze "sales"
Steuer "tax"

[tautech]

Bing translate= The sale is carried out according to § 25a UStG

http://www.babelfish.com/ = The sale is carried out according to § 25a UStG

Maybe it's not German?

[ElektroQuark]

It's German.

I think it wants to say that taxes (25%) are included in the final price.
It's from an eBay auction.

[wiss]

UStG = Umsatzsteuergesetz = Sales Tax Act (I think...)

[hscade]

It is just about the German VAT 

[Wh1sper]

I'm not a lawer.
I think this offer says, it's for Companies only, because they will not differ the pay ill between costs and VAT.
But I'm unsure VAT is very complicated in the sense of private and commercial useage

[Marco]

Bit of googling says that it means the VAT won't be indicated (thus you can't reclaim it either even if you are otherwise VAT exempt).

[madires]

Bit of googling says that it means the VAT won't be indicated (thus you can't reclaim it either even if you are otherwise VAT exempt).

Exactly! The invoice also requires the EU VAT-IDs of both companies (seller and buyer). The seller has to verify that the buyer's VAT-ID is valid and he has to follow some rules about the delivery. Otherwise he would have to pay the VAT in case of an inspection by the tax office. German tax laws are a nightmare

[PA0PBZ]

It's about the German VAT law, paragraph 25:

http://www.gesetze-im-internet.de/ustg_1980/__25a.html

No luck in finding an English version...

[ElektroQuark]

Thank you all.

[AndreasF]

Maybe a bit more background (based on my reading of the German Wikipedia article):

As the others have said, this is to do with how VAT is calculated for the seller. Specifically it is applied to goods that the seller itself bought without VAT being 'declared' (e.g. when he bought the item from a private individual). In that case, the seller is only VAT liable for the difference between the price he paid for the item when he bought it and the price he is going to sell it for (that's why the rule is also called the 'difference rule').  The article gives the example of a used car salesperson. This reduces the VAT liability to the seller thereby effectively increasing his margin (the amount of money he's made from the sale). The downside for the buyer is that he can't reclaim this VAT amount. However, if you (as buyer) don't fall into this category anyway (i.e. buy as a private individual) this is the cheaper option for you as well. If you buy as someone who can and wants to reclaim VAT, you would be better off using a different rule (paragraph 12).

There's more to it, but that's the gist (I think).